i have been stoozing for years, and consistently use credit cards for all purchases, but i’ve never done the following before:
i have a c£21k balance with MBNA which needs to be cleared before the 0% deal comes to an end on 1st September. i have already moved just under £5k to Nationwide, and i want to move the remainder rather than pay off the balance.
i have a Barclaycard with a £30k+ limit which I have been using for spending, and generating cashback in the process. In order to use this card to transfer the c£16k i was planning to clear the current Barclaycard balance in full, do the BT, and then leave the card at home – potentially spending on the MBNA card as an Amex backup from then onwards.
However, Barclaycard are assuring me that I don’t need to. I can complete the BT and leave the purchase balance on the account, and as long as I clear the purchase balance each month they are assuring me that I will be charged any interest at all. I would change my Barclaycard DD from Full to Minimum, and then make a payment from my current account, by FP, each month to clear the full purchase balance by due date.
is this right? or should this really be avoided?